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Reading the Bible is like looking into a pond. In some places, the water is all murky; in other places, the water is quite clear. In yet some other places, the rocks and pebbles at the bottom of the pond have shifted.

More importantly, when one looks into the pond, one sees a reflection of oneself. This reflection is surely not the only thing one sees, but it is there. An excessive case of narcissisim can lead one to read into the Bible exactly what one would like to read. If one is aware of one’s reflection, one could try and counterbalance it – to look beyond it – but it will always be there.

While reading Joshua 3 with some of my Hebrew students, I drew a bit more complicated version of the picture below on the whiteboard:

Hermeneutics of Joshua 3

Hermeneutics of Joshua 3

This shows the complicated nature of this text in Joshua. An original event occurred long ago; the story of this event was probably handed down via oral tradition; the story was written down from at least two perspectives (in the case of Joshua 3, from the perspective of a writer focussing on the ark and priests, while another focussed on the crossing of the river); a redactor put these stories together to more or less form the story as we now have it in the Masoretic text tradition. Each of these “retellings” of what happened at the original event was penned in a specific time, with a message for that time. The story of the redactor was then handed over via the textual tradition – which adds a few twists and turns. Finally, we have the text as we know it today – mostly read in different translations.

When looking back into the past, then, from today’s perspective, one can hardly speak with absolute certainty about the original event – removed from our context by quite a few steps. In any case, which of these contexts are the legitimate one? Is it the redactor’s that should be taken as the context – the one with authorial intent? Is it the event itself? Why then is it told from a certain perspective? Doesn’t Author 1 and Author 2 also deserve some attention? Finally, what does this text mean for today?

Things went well in Stellenbosch. Although my papers weren’t completely written out – due to time constraints – my presentations went well. At least, I convinced myself that I was on to something!

I spent the past two days driving back from Stellenbosch to Pretoria with a professor and three fellow students.

I’m taking a breather before leaving for Rome tomorrow night – for the International SBL conference. This is going to be fun! I will be delivering a paper entitled: “Critical Spatiality and Narrative Space in John 18:28-19:16.” Have to prepare a handout still, but at least the paper is completely written out.

After Rome, I will be off to London for the Birmingham Colloquium – this year, it will be all about Codex Sinaiticus. Really looking forward to this experience!

Perhaps, if I get time, I’ll report some more on the Stellenbosch conferences.

I am reading a paper in about a week’s time at the SA Association for the Study of the LXX’s Conference in Stellenbosch. The title of this paper is: “Reading ‘Bel and the Dragon’ as Narrative: a comparison between the Old Greek and Theodotion.

The abstract reads as follows:

This paper investigates the narrative character of Bel and the Dragon, using an eclectic model of narrative criticism. Since Bel and the Dragon exists in two Greek traditions, one can compare the way in which these stories are told: e.g., how the characters are portrayed, what point of view the narrator adopts, etc. In comparing these two versions, certain key features of each come to light.

I really think we Protestants should take a second look at the canonicity of Bel and the Dragon (or Snake, or Serpent)! It is a beautiful tale in which the king comes to the realization that Daniel’s God is the only one. This is done with quite some skill, contra what some people have said in the past. The problem with their perspective, if I may be as bold,  is that they simply stuck to historical-critical studies. With a narrative approach, a lot more can be gleaned from the text! One can read the story in the New English Translation of the Septuagint here. In fact, the whole NETS edition can be accessed online, here.

I wish I could post some more on this beautiful tale (tales, really). At the moment, though, things are quite hectic as I have to also prepare for the second conference, a joint conference of Old Testament -, New Testament -, Systematic Theology -, etc. societies in South Africa. It is part of the celebration of the 150th ‘birthday’ of the Faculty of Theology at Stellenbosch. At this conference, the bigger one of the two, I will be presenting (Deo volente!) a paper entitled: “Pilate’s character: a narratological reading.” Once again, the abstract explains it the best:

This paper investigates Pilate’s character as portrayed in each Gospel by using a combination of narratological theories of character. Each Gospel constitutes its own narrative, with specific emphases. By highlighting the different roles and character traits of Pilate as set forth in each Gospel, some of these emphases will be laid bare.

Perhaps, if time permits, I will post some thoughts on these two topics when I get back!

A contribution of mine was accepted into Vetus Testamentum Supplementum 127: Septuagint and Reception. Although I have known this for some time, I recently received news that I will receive a free copy! Yeah! (It is worth $200, and there are definitely some contributions of more value than my humble attempt.

The (long-winded!) title of my essay is: “Differences Between the MT and LXX Contexts of Old Testament Quotations in the New Testament: Isaiah 45:18-25 as a Case Study.”

In many contexts and formularies of the church, the Eucharist has been linked with sin and the forgiveness thereof. Being perchance under the spell of the conversation with Scot McKnight a few of us South Africans had the privilege to be part of, I began pondering on this connection. (Professor McKnight’s lecture can be downloaded as an MP3 from Tom Smith’s blog, who also blogged on the conversation.) Prof McKnight pointed out a fourfold “oversimplification” of the Gospel, which might pertain to the overemphasised connection of the Eucharist with sin:

 

1. God loves you

2. You are a sinner

3. Jesus died for the forgiveness of your sin

4. If you accept Christ as your Saviour, your sins are forgiven (with an emphasis on gaining heaven)

 

The four highly relevant texts for a discussion of the institution of the Eucharist are Matt 26:26-29, Mark 14:22-25, Luke 22:14-20 and 1 Cor 11:23-26. (Perhaps one could also add the reference to the Eucharist in 1 Cor 10:16ff, or more veiled references such as Cleopas and his friend in Luke 24. John omits the institution of the Eucharist. Some reference to it might be picked up in chapter 21 – depending on one’s view on that chapter, of course.) 

Only in Matt 26:26-29 is there a direct connection between the Eucharist and sin. Verse 28 reads: τοῦτο γάρ ἐστιν τὸ αἷμά μου τῆς διαθήκης τὸ περὶ πολλῶν ἐκχυννόμενον εἰς ἄφεσιν ἁμαρτιῶν. “Because this is my blood of the covenant, which for many is poured out for the forgiveness of sins.”

Mark 14 does not have “for the forgiveness of sins.” Mark 14:24b reads: τοῦτό ἐστιν τὸ αἷμά μου τῆς διαθήκης τὸ ἐκχυννόμενον ὑπὲρ πολλῶν. “This is my blood of the covenant, which is poured out for many.” As can be expected, Mark is harmonised to Matthew, in that some manuscripts add εἰς ἄφεσιν ἁμαρτιῶν (“for the forgiveness of sins”). NA27 lists the following: W, family 13, a few more Greek mss, a single Old Latin Witness (Codex Vercellensis), one ms of the Vulgate (followed by some sahidic manuscripts and the bohairic tradition). Rightly, NA27 does not even give the witnesses for the printed text. Mark is often harmonised to read with Matthew, since Matthew was considered the ‘stronger’ Gospel. (In this verse, some other harmonisations of Mark to Matthew occur – e.g., ἐκχυννόμενον ὑπὲρ πολλῶν has been replaced with περὶ πολλῶν ἐκχυννόμενον in A and the Majority of Greek manuscripts (including family 1), and the Harklensian Syriac version.)

Luke, on prima facie evidence, draws on both Mark and some other source. For one thing, Luke adds another cup (verse 17), then the bread (verse 19) and then the institution of the cup “in the same manner” (ὡσαύτως). Some verbal echoes to Mark is apparent, e.g.:

Mark 14:22: … λαβὼν ἄρτον εὐλογήσας ἔκλασεν καὶ ἔδωκεν αὐτοῖς καὶ εἶπεν· λάβετε, τοῦτό ἐστιν τὸ σῶμά μου.

Luke 22:19: … λαβὼν ἄρτον εὐχαριστήσας ἔκλασεν καὶ ἔδωκεν αὐτοῖς λέγων· τοῦτό ἐστιν τὸ σῶμά μου τὸ ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν διδόμενον· 

Luke shows some similarities to Paul, too, e.g.:

1 Cor 11:23b-24: ἔλαβεν ἄρτον καὶ εὐχαριστήσας ἔκλασεν καὶ εἶπεν· τοῦτό μού ἐστιν τὸ σῶμα τὸ ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν· … 

Luke 22:19: … λαβὼν ἄρτον εὐχαριστήσας ἔκλασεν καὶ ἔδωκεν αὐτοῖς λέγων· τοῦτό ἐστιν τὸ σῶμά μου τὸ ὑπὲρ ὑμῶν διδόμενον· 

These places of comparison can be multiplied. An important overlap between Paul and Luke is that the eucharist is instituted εἰς τὴν … ἀνάμνησιν (“for the remembrance”) of Jesus (1 Cor 11:24,25; Luke 22:19). For Paul, this implies the continuous preaching of the death of the Lord. Luke does not add this detail – one might propose that Luke considers the “remembrance” to point also to the reason of Christ’s death. Following the institution of the Eucharist, while still at the table, the disciples quarrel over which of them is the greatest. Jesus answers that it is the one who serves; after his own example, since he is ἐν μέσῳ ὑμῶν … ὡς ὁ διακονῶν (“in the midst of you … like a one who serves”). After this, of course, the passion takes its course. 

By no means exhaustive, the excursion above will suffice to indicate that the eucharist can not be reduced to simply the forgiveness of sins. At the very least, it should include the preaching of the death of Christ (and EVERYTHING that entails), as well as a remembrance of his death.

FOOTNOTES:

1) Matthew alone explicitly connects the Eucharist with the forgiveness of sins.

2) There are two main traditions of the Eucharist evident in the New Testament – Mark/Matthew and 1 Corinthians/Luke (although Luke draws on Mark, too.) Of course, all four authors of these books add their own emphases.

3) Luke probably made use of both Mark and Paul.

4) The Eucharist should (at least) also be a proclamation of the death of Jesus. This includes the grounds for his death – his life, lived as a servant.

Important CAVEAT: In this study, I’ve assumed that Luke 22:19b-20, one of the so-called “Western non-interpolations”  is part of the early tradition.

 While reading 1 Corinthians 6, I started wondering about a few things. This is the result – keep in mind that I’ve only grabbed resources I had handy.

The phrase ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ (“the kingdom of (the) God”) – both nouns with the article – occurs 64 times in the New Testament, according to the NA27 text. Only 5 of these instances occur outside of the Gospels and Acts (Rom 14:17; 1 Cor 4:20; Col 4:11; 2 Thess 1:5; Rev 12:10). In John, the expression occurs only in 3:3 and 3:5.

1 Thess 2:12 reads very close to the synoptic expression (if one may call it that): ἀξίως τοῦ θεοῦ τοῦ καλοῦντος ὑμᾶς εἰς τὴν ἑαυτοῦ βασιλείαν καὶ δόξαν (“worthy of (the) God who has called you into (the) his kingdom and glory”). In this instance “God” was substituted by the pronoun.

In 1 Cor 6:9-10, “kingdom of God” forms an inclusio for those who will not inherit it: θεοῦ βασιλείαν … βασιλείαν θεοῦ. This forms an AB – BA pattern (i.e. a chiasm). One could almost think of this pattern as a textual metaphor for the gates of the kingdom – however, that would be more in line with the synoptic way of thinking. In 1 Cor 15:50, Paul also speaks of inheritance, adding no article to the expression (βασιλείαν θεοῦ), as also in Gal 5:21. On the sight of it, Paul prefers not to place definite articles before the two nouns.

In Ephesians 5, the expression is changed to ἔχει κληρονομίαν ἐν τῇ βασιλείᾳ τοῦ Χριστοῦ καὶ θεοῦ (“has an inheritance in the kingdom of (the) Christ and God”). The last part of the verse has some notable text-critical problems. Papyrus 46 reads τοῦ θεοῦ (as does 1245 2147; also Tertullian (220), according to Ehrman (Orthodox Corruption of Scripture, 1993, Oxford: Oxford University Press, p. 269). This can easily be explained as harmonization to the synoptics. F, G and one Bohairic manucript reads τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ Χριστοῦ, so does Ambrosiaster (366-384). Metzger (A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, 1975, London: UBS) is of the opinion that this too could be due to influence from the Gospels. If anything, the original reading could have been only τοῦ Χριστοῦ (in 2 Tim 4:1, Heb 1:8 and Rev 1:9, too, it is Christ’s kingdom), changed by a scribe to conform to the synoptics (P46, τοῦ θεοῦ). The NA27 reading could then possibly be a conflation between these two. However, the more natural way to conflate these readings would probably be in the order “kingdom of God and Christ”, not the other way around. Although this reading does occur (the original reading of 1739, the Ethiopian tradition, and Theodoret read Χριστοῦ τοῦ θεοῦ), there would be no point in switching the two around (see also Ehrman, p.269). Therefore, the NA27 reading is most probably correct, as it best explains the others. (Note: both Metzger and Tischendorf give some more readings, which is obviously secondary.)

FOOTNOTES: In general, there are four “traditions” of speaking of the kingdom of God.

1) The Gospels talk either of entering the kingdom of God, or of the nearness of the kingdom of God. (Also Rev 12:10?)

2) Mark and Luke sometimes explains the nature of the kingdom of God, e.g. Mark 4:11,26,30; 10:14,15; Luke 8:10; 13:18,20; 18:16 (but see 18:17!)

3) Acts (and sometimes Luke, e.g. 4:43; 8:1; 9:2,11,60; 16:16) generally talks about preaching the kingdom of God. (Except for Acts 14:22).

4) Paul talks about inheriting the kingdom of God. (But see also 1 Cor 15:24!) This tradition, slightly modified, is also visible in Ephesians (5:5) and James (2:5); see also Matt 21:43, Luke 6:20.

I might advance the (very preliminary) hypothesis that by the time of the writing of the Gospels, the phrase ἡ βασιλεία τοῦ θεοῦ has become a fixed expression, while this is not so in the time of Paul. Whatever the case may be, “(the) kingdom of (the) God” is part and parcel of the Christian tradition, for sure.

A few CAVEATS:

1) I did not check all of these readings text-critically – this needs to be done before any definite conclusions can be reached. It would be interesting to see if there are tendencies in certain manuscripts to change the articles or readings, e.g. to conform to the synoptic tradition.

2) One needs to check the expression in the LXX, which I have not done. Does the phrase occur in a technical sense in the LXX, or perhaps in the Hebrew texts (e.g. MT or Qumran)?

3) Differences in the synoptic tradition should be checked against findings on Q.

4) The four “traditions” that I’ve identified need to be refined and some more categories added!

5) I’m not sure if there are any recent works on the Kingdom of God which concerns itself mainly with the textual level. Is there anything out there?

Synchroblog

This post is part of a synchroblog on the theme of The Kingdom of God. You may see other posts on this theme at: